In reply to ABD_91:
Ah. Your question is philosophical :)
You are asking, “Is it still considered a pass, if there are no variables to randomize?”
In this case (and most of the coding world) , the answer is a yes. The idea here is that the eventual randomize call ended up in passing “0” variables to the constraint solver, and the solver didn’t have to do a thing. A constraint solver failure (which implies that the randomization call failed) signifies that one or more variables couldn’t be solved for.
It would have been good for the LRM to explicitly state that “in case of 0 rand variables, the output of randomize is a 1/pass.” I tried a couple of simulators, and they seems to agree that randomizing 0 varialbes == PASS.
That’s my 2 cents. Others can feel free to comment and correct me where I am wrong.